Cisco Wireless Game

Mulai	Level 1
Level 2	Level 3
Level 4	Level 6
Level 7	Level 8
Level 9	Score 2
Score 3	Score 4
Score 5	Score 6
Score 7	Score 9

Evaluasi CCNA Discovery 1 Chapter 7

Evaluasi CCNA Discovery 1 Chapter 7

Kuis SCORM

1. Why is IEEE 802.11 wireless technology able to transmit further distances than Bluetooth technology?

	transmits at much lower frequencies
	has higher power output
	transmits at much higher frequencies
	uses better encryption methods

2. What are three advantages of wireless over wired technology?

	more secure , longer range and anytime, anywhere connectivity
	anytime, anywhere connectivity , easy and inexpensive to install and ease of using licensed air space
	longer range , easy and inexpensive to install and ease of adding additional devices
	anytime, anywhere connectivity , easy and inexpensive to install and ease of adding additional devices

3. What are two benefits of wireless networking over wired networking?

	speed and security
	security and mobility
	mobility and reduced installation time
	reduced installation time and allows users to share more resources

4. A technician has been asked to provide wireless connectivity to the wired Ethernet network of a building. Which three factors affect the number of access points needed?

	the size of the building, the number of solid interior walls in the building and the presence of microwave ovens in several offices
	the size of the building, the encryption method used on the wireless network and the use of both Windows and Appletalk operating systems
	the use of both Windows and Appletalk operating systems , the number of solid interior walls in the building and the use of shortwave or infrared on the AP
	the use of shortwave or infrared on the AP , the presence of microwave ovens in several offices and the number of solid interior walls in the building

5. Why is security so important in wireless networks?

	Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.
	Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.
	Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.
	Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless networks.

6. What does the Wi-Fi logo indicate about a wireless device?

	IEEE has approved the device.
	The device is interoperable with all other wireless standards.
	The device is interoperable with other devices of the same standard that also display the Wi-Fi logo.
	The device is backwards compatible with all previous wireless standards.

7. Which statement is true concerning wireless bridges?

	connects two networks with a wireless link
	stationary device that connects to a wireless LAN
	allows wireless clients to connect to a wired network
	increases the strength of a wireless signal

8. Which WLAN component is commonly referred to as an STA?

	cell
	antenna
	access point
	wireless bridge
	wireless client

9. Which statement is true concerning an ad-hoc wireless network?

	created by connecting wireless clients in a peer-to-peer network
	created by connecting wireless clients to a single, centralized AP
	created by connecting multiple wireless basic service sets through a distribution system
	created by connecting wireless clients to a wired network using an ISR

10. Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu option of a Linksys integrated router, what does the Network Mode option Mixed mean?

	The router supports encryption and authentication.
	The router supports both wired and wireless connections.
	The router supports 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices.
	The router supports connectivity through infrared and radio frequencies.

11. Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu of a Linksys integrated router, what configuration option allows the presence of the access point to be known to nearby clients?

	Network Mode
	Network Name (SSID)
	Radio Band
	Wide Channel
	Standard Channel
	SSID Broadcast

12. Which two statements about a service set identifier (SSID) are true?

	tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs and consists of a 32-character string and is not case sensitive
	responsible for determining the signal strength and all wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID
	all wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID and used to encrypt data sent across the wireless network
	tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs and all wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID

13. Which two statements characterize wireless network security?

	Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks. Wardriving enhances security of wireless networks.
	Wardriving enhances security of wireless networks. With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must know the SSID to connect.
	With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must know the SSID to connect. Using the default IP address on an access point makes hacking easier.
	Using the default IP address on an access point makes hacking easier. An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.

14. What type of authentication do most access points use by default?

	Open
	PSK
	WEP
	EAP

15. Which statement is true about open authentication when it is enabled on an access point?

	requires no authentication
	uses a 64-bit encryption algorithm
	requires the use of an authentication server
	requires a mutually agreed upon password

16. What are two authentication methods that an access point could use?

	WEP and WPA
	WPA and EAP
	EAP and ASCII
	EAP and pre-shared keys
	Pre-shared keys and ASCII

17. What is the difference between using open authentication and pre-shared keys?

	Open authentication requires a password. Pre-shared keys do not require a password.
	Open authentication is used with wireless networks. Pre-shared keys are used with wired networks.
	Pre-shared keys require an encrypted secret word. Open authentication does not require a secret word.
	Pre-shared keys require a MAC address programmed into the access point. Open authentication does not require this programming.

18. What term describes the encoding of wireless data to prevent intercepted data from being read by a hacker?

	address filtering
	authentication
	broadcasting
	encryption
	passphrase encoding

19. What access-point feature allows a network administrator to define what type of data can enter the wireless network?

	encryption
	hacking block
	traffic filtering
	MAC address filtering
	authentication

20. What are the two WEP key lengths? (Choose two.)

	8 bit 16 bit
	16 bit 32 bit
	32 bit 64 bit
	64 bit 128 bit

21. Complete the following sentence: WEP is used to ______ , and EAP is used to _____ wireless networks.

	encrypt; authenticate users on
	filter traffic; select the operating frequency for
	identify the wireless network; compress data on
	create the smallest wireless network; limit the number of users on

TABEL SUBNET MASK

Subnet Mask Yang Bisa Digunakan Untuk Kelas A

Subnet Mask Nilai CIDR 255.128.0.0 /9 255.192.0.0 /10 255.224.0.0 /11 255.240.0.0 /12 255.248.0.0 /13 255.252.0.0 /14 255.254.0.0 /15 255.255.0.0 /16 255.255.128.0 /17 255.255.192.0 /18 255.255.224.0 /19	Subnet Mask Nilai CIDR 255.255.240.0 /20 255.255.248.0 /21 255.255.252.0 /22 255.255.254.0 /23 255.255.255.0 /24 255.255.255.128 /25 255.255.255.192 /26 255.255.255.224 /27 255.255.255.240 /28 255.255.255.248 /29 255.255.255.252 /30

Analisa: 10.0.0.0 berarti kelas A, dengan Subnet Mask /16 berarti 11111111.11111111.00000000.00000000 (255.255.0.0)

1. Jumlah Subnet = 2⁸ = 256 subnet
2. Jumlah Host per Subnet = 2¹⁶ - 2 = 65534 host
3. Blok Subnet = 256 - 255 = 1. Jadi subnet lengkapnya: 0,1,2,3,4, etc.

Subnet Mask Yang Bisa Digunakan Untuk Kelas B

Subnet Mask Nilai CIDR 255.255.128.0 /17 255.255.192.0 /18 255.255.224.0 /19 255.255.240.0 /20 255.255.248.0 /21 255.255.252.0 /22 255.255.254.0 /23 255.255.255.0 /24	Subnet Mask Nilai CIDR 255.255.255.128 /25 255.255.255.192 /26 255.255.255.224 /27 255.255.255.240 /28 255.255.255.248 /29 255.255.255.252 /30

Analisa: 172.16.0.0 berarti kelas B, dengan Subnet Mask /18 berarti  11111111.11111111.11000000.00000000 (255.255.192.0).

Penghitungan:

1. Jumlah Subnet = 2x, dimana x adalah banyaknya binari 1 pada 2 oktet terakhir. Jadi Jumlah Subnet adalah 22 = 4 subnet

2. Jumlah Host per Subnet = 2y - 2, dimana y adalah adalah kebalikan dari x yaitu banyaknya binari 0 pada 2 oktet terakhir. Jadi jumlah host per subnet adalah 214 - 2 = 16.382 host

3. Blok Subnet = 256 - 192 = 64. Subnet berikutnya adalah 64 + 64 = 128, dan 128+64=192. Jadi total subnetnya adalah 0, 64, 128, 192.

Subnet Mask Yang Bisa Digunakan Untuk Kelas C

Subnet Mask	Nilai CIDR
255.255.255.128	/25
255.255.255.192	/26
255.255.255.224	/27
255.255.255.240	/28
255.255.255.248	/29
255.255.255.252	/30

Analisa: 192.168.1.0 berarti kelas C dengan Subnet Mask /26 berarti 11111111.11111111.11111111.11000000 (255.255.255.192).

Penghitungan:

Tentang subnetting akan berpusat di 4 hal, jumlah subnet, jumlah host per subnet, blok subnet, alamat host dan broadcast yang valid.

1. Jumlah Subnet = 2^x, dimana x adalah banyaknya binari 1 pada oktet terakhir subnet mask (2 oktet terakhir untuk kelas B, dan 3 oktet terakhir untuk kelas A). Jadi Jumlah Subnet adalah 2² = 4 subnet
2. Jumlah Host per Subnet = 2^y - 2, dimana y adalah adalah kebalikan dari x yaitu banyaknya binari 0 pada oktet terakhir subnet. Jadi jumlah host per subnet adalah 2⁶ - 2 = 62 host
3. Blok Subnet = 256 - 192 (nilai oktet terakhir subnet mask) = 64. Subnet berikutnya adalah 64 + 64 = 128, dan 128+64=192. Jadi total subnetnya adalah 0, 64, 128, 192.
4. Bagaimana dengan alamat host dan broadcast yang valid? Kita langsung buat tabelnya. Sebagai catatan, host pertama adalah 1 angka setelah subnet, dan broadcast adalah 1 angka sebelum subnet berikutnya.

Subnet	192.168.1.0	192.168.1.64	192.168.1.128	192.168.1.192
Host Pertama	192.168.1.1	192.168.1.65	192.168.1.129	192.168.1.193
Host Terakhir	192.168.1.62	192.168.1.126	192.168.1.190	192.168.1.254
Broadcast	192.168.1.63	192.168.1.127	192.168.1.191	192.168.1.255

Evaluasi CCNA Discovery 1 - Chapter 3

Evaluasi CCNA Discovery 1 - Chapter 3

Chapter 3 - Connecting to the Network

1. Which term is used to describe the process of placing one message format into another format so that the message can be delivered across the appropriate medium?

	flow control
	encapsulation
	encoding
	multicasting
	access method

2. Refer to the graphic. Five PCs are connected through a hub. If host H1 wants to reply to a message from host H2, which statement is true?

	H1 sends a unicast message to H2, but the hub forwards it to all devices.
	H1 sends a unicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.
	H1 sends a broadcast message to H2, and the hub forwards it to all devices.
	H1 sends a multicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.

3. Which two statements concerning networking standards are true?

	adds complexity to networks encourages vendors to create proprietary protocols
	encourages vendors to create proprietary protocols provides consistent interconnections across networks
	provides consistent interconnections across networks ensures that communications work best in a single-vendor environment
	ensures that communications work best in a single-vendor environment simplifies new product development
	provides consistent interconnections across networks simplifies new product development

4. What does the 100 mean when referencing the 100BASE-T Ethernet standard?

	type of cable used
	type of data transmission
	speed of transmission
	type of connector required
	maximum length of cable allowed

5. Which address does an NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame?

	source IP address
	source MAC address
	destination IP address
	destination MAC address
	source Ethernet address

6. Which type of address is used in an Ethernet frame header?

	logical addresses only
	IP addresses only
	MAC addresses only
	broadcast addresses only

7. What is the function of the FCS field in an Ethernet frame?

	detects transmission errors
	provides timing for transmission
	contains the start of frame delimiter
	indicates which protocol will receive the frame

8. What is the purpose of logical addresses in an IP network?

	They identify a specific NIC on a host device.
	They are used to determine which host device accepts the frame.
	They provide vendor-specific information about the host.
	They are used to determine the network that the host is located on.
	They are used by switches to make forwarding decisions.

9. Which device accepts a message on one port and always forwards the message to all other ports?

	modem
	switch
	router
	hub

10. Which two networking devices are used to connect hosts to the access layer?

	hub and switch
	switch and router
	hub and router
	switch and computer
	client and server

11. Host A needs to learn the MAC address of Host B, which is on the same LAN segment. A message has been sent to all the hosts on the segment asking for the MAC address of Host B. Host B responds with its MAC address and all other hosts disregard the request. What protocol was used in this scenario?

	ARP
	DHCP
	DNS
	WINS

12. A switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is currently not in the MAC table. What action does the switch perform?

	It drops the frame.
	It sends out an ARP request looking for the MAC address.
	It floods the frame out of all active ports, except the origination port.
	It returns the frame to the sender.

13. What is a benefit of having a router within the distribution layer?

	prevents collisions on a local network
	keeps broadcasts contained within a local network
	controls which hosts have access to the network
	controls host-to-host traffic within a single local network

14. Refer to the graphic. What does the router do after it determines that a data packet from Network 1 should be forwarded to Network 2?

	It sends the data packet as it was received.
	It reassembles the frame with different MAC addresses than the original frame.
	It reassembles the data packet with different IP addresses than the original data packet.
	It reassembles both the packet and the frame with different destination IP and MAC addresses.

15. Which table does a router use to make decisions about the interface through which a data packet is to be sent?

	ARP table
	routing table
	network table
	forwarding table

16. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

	The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
	The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
	The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
	There is no impact on communications.

17. What device is typically used as the default gateway for a computer?

	a server hosted by the ISP
	the router interface closest to the computer
	a server managed by a central IT department
	the switch interface that connects to the computer

18. What type of route allows a router to forward packets even though its routing table contains no specific route to the destination network?

	dynamic route
	default route
	destination route
	generic route

19. Which two items are included in a network logical map?

	naming scheme IP addressing scheme
	IP addressing scheme length of cable runs
	length of cable runs physical location of networking devices
	physical location of networking devices specific layout of interconnections between networking devices and hosts

20. An integrated router can normally perform the functions of which two other network devices?

	NIC Switch
	Switch e-mail Server
	Switch Wireless Access Point
	e-mail server application server

21. What is a reason for disabling simple file sharing?

	It enables the user to map a remote resource with a local drive.
	It enables the user to share all files with all users and groups.
	It enables the user to share printers.
	It enables the user to set more specific security access levels.

Evaluasi CCNA Discovery 1 Chapter 4

Evaluasi CCNA Discovery 1 Chapter 4

Chapter 4 - Connecting to the Internet Through an ISP

1. Which definition describes the term Internet?

	a group of PCs connected together on a LAN
	a group of PCs connected together by an ISP
	a network of networks that connects countries around the world
	a worldwide collection of networks controlled by a single organization

2. What type of connection point is a point of presence (POP)?

	between a client and a host
	between two local networks
	between a computer and a switch
	between an ISP and a home-based LAN

3. What is the term for the group of high-speed data links that interconnect ISPs?

	Internet LAN
	ISP backbone
	Internet gateways
	Internet providers
	Internet backbone

4. Which device can act as a router, switch, and wireless access point in one package?

	hub
	bridge
	modem
	repeater
	ISR

5. What are three characteristics of business class ISP service? (Choose three.)

	fast connections extra web space free Windows upgrade
	fast connections cheapest cost available to all users free Windows upgrade
	fast connections extra web space cheapest cost available to all users
	fast connections cheapest cost available to all users additional e-mail accounts
	replacement hardware at no cost additional e-mail accounts cheapest cost available to all users
	fast connections extra web space additional e-mail accounts

6. What is a major characteristic of asymmetric Internet service?

	Download speeds and upload speeds are equal.
	Download speeds are slower than upload speeds.
	Upload speeds and download speeds are different.
	Upload speeds and download speeds are irrelevant.

7. Which three elements are required to successfully connect to the Internet? (Choose three.)

	an IP address file sharing enabled a network connection
	a network connection server services enabled access to an Internet service provider
	access to an Internet service provider an address obtained directly from the RIR server services enabled
	an IP address a network connection access to an Internet service provider
	file sharing enabled server services enabled an address obtained directly from the RIR

8. What term describes each router through which a packet travels when moving between source and destination networks?

	NOC
	ISP
	hop
	segment

9. What does the tracert command test?

	NIC functionality
	the ISP bandwidth
	the network path to a destination
	the destination application functionality

10. What type of end-user connectivity requires that an ISP have a DSLAM device in their network?

	analog technology
	cable modem technology
	digital subscriber line technology
	wireless technology

11. Why would an ISP require a CMTS device on their network?

	to connect end users using cable technology
	to connect end users using analog technology
	to connect end users using wireless technology
	to connect end users using digital subscriber line technology

12. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?

	STP
	UTP
	coax
	fiber

13. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?

	STP
	UTP
	coax
	fiber

14. Which two places are most appropriate to use UTP cabling? (Choose two.)

	between buildings in a home office network
	in a home office network where EMI is an issue
	where EMI is an issue in a cable TV network
	in a cable TV network inside a school building
	inside a school building in a manufacturing environment with hundreds of electrical devices
	in a home office network inside a school building

15. What does adherence to cabling standards ensure?

	data security
	no loss of signal
	no electromagnetic interference
	reliable data communications

16. Refer to the graphic. What type of cable is shown?

	crossover
	eight coax channels
	multimode fiber
	single-mode fiber
	straight-through

17. What connector is used to terminate Ethernet unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cabling?

	ST
	BNC
	RJ-11
	RJ-45

18. Which two characteristics describe copper patch panels? (Choose two.)

	uses RJ-11 jacks uses RJ-45 jacks
	uses RJ-45 jacks supports only data transmissions
	supports only data transmissions allows quick rearrangements of network connections
	allows quick rearrangements of network connections uses RJ-45 jacks
	supports only data transmissions forwards transmissions based on MAC addresses

19. What are two advantages of cable management? (Choose two.)

	requires no preplanning aids in isolation of cabling problems
	aids in isolation of cabling problems protects cables from physical damage
	protects cables from physical damage provides compliance with future standards
	provides compliance with future standards provides a short-term solution for cable installation

20. What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)

	installing cables in conduit having improper termination
	having improper termination losing light over long distances
	losing light over long distances installing low quality cable shielding
	installing low quality cable shielding using low quality cables or connectors
	having improper termination using low quality cables or connectors

21. What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)

	pinouts cable lengths connector color
	connector color connector types cost per meter (foot)
	pinouts cable lengths connector types
	cable lengths connector types tensile strength of plastic insulator
	tensile strength of plastic insulator pinouts connector color

JARINGAN KOMPUTER SOAL CHAPTER 1

Evaluasi CCNA Discovery 1 Chapter 1

Chapter 1 - Personal Computer Hardware

1. Applications can be grouped into general use software or industry specific software. What is example of industry specific software?

	an educational tool
	presentation
	spreadsheet
	word processing
	database management

2. What characteristic of word processing software would make it a local application?

	The application is shared between users.
	The software is stored on the local hard drive.
	The software is accessible through a web page.
	The software has the ability to manipulate text and graphics.

3. Which three terms describe different types of computers?

	operating system, network, desktop
	laptop, desktop, Windows
	laptop, desktop, mainframe
	network, desktop, mainframe
	laptop, desktop, mainframe
	operating system, Windows, Linux

4. What are two benefits of connecting a laptop computer to a docking station?

	Mobility is increased and less power is required.
	Mobility is increased and an external monitor can be used.
	An external monitor can be used and more wireless security options are available.
	More wireless security options are available and alternate connectivity options may be available.
	Alternate connectivity options may be available and an external monitor can be used.

5. Why do servers often contain duplicate or redundant parts?

	Servers require more power and thus require more components.
	Servers should be accessible at all times.
	Servers can be designed as standalone towers or rack mounted.
	Servers are required by networking standards to have duplicate parts.

6. What measurement is commonly associated with computer processing speed?

	bits
	pixels
	hertz
	bytes

7. What are two advantages of purchasing a preassembled computer?

	usually a lower cost and exact components may be specified
	usually a lower cost and extended waiting period for assembly
	extended waiting period for assembly and adequate for performing most general applications
	adequate for performing most general applications and usually a lower cost
	suited for customers with special needs and exact components may be specified

8. A user plans to run multiple applications simultaneously on a computer. Which computer component is essential to accomplish this?

	RAM
	NIC
	Video Card
	Sound Card
	Storage Device

9. Which adapter enables a computer system to exchange information with other systems on a local network?

	Video Card
	Sound Card
	Modem Card
	Network Interface Card

10. What is the main storage drive used by servers, desktops, and laptops?

	tape drive
	hard drive
	optical drive (DVD)
	floppy disk drive

11. Which component is designed to remove high-voltage spikes and surges from a power line so that they do not damage a computer system?

	CPU
	surge suppressor
	motherboard
	hard drive

12. What two functions does a UPS provide that a surge protector does not?

	It protects the computer from voltage surges and it provides backup power from an internal battery.
	It protects the computer from voltage surges and it protects the computer from sudden voltage spikes.
	It provides backup power from an internal battery and it gives the user time to safely shut down the computer if the power fails.
	It protects the computer from sudden voltage spikes and it gives the user time to phone the electrical company.
	It provides backup power through a generator provided by the wall outlet and it gives the user time to phone the electrical company.

13. Which computer component is considered the nerve center of the computer system and is responsible for processing all of the data within the machine?

	RAM
	CPU
	Video Card
	Sound Card
	Operating System

14. What can be used to prevent electrostatic discharge (ESD)?

	dry and non humid conditions
	carpeted floor
	grounding strap
	uncluttered work space

15. Because of the potentially dangerous voltage levels, which two devices should you not open unless you have been specifically trained to work on them?

	mouse and power supply
	hard drive and monitor
	microprocessor and keyboard
	monitor and power supply
	hard drive and power supply

16. In newer operating systems, how are system resources assigned by default when components are installed?

	manually assigned by the operating system
	manually assigned by the administrator
	statically assigned by the component to a preset resource
	dynamically assigned between the component and the operating system

17. A user reports that a peripheral device that was installed correctly last week has not been functioning since the PC was booted today. All other PC functions are working properly. What are three things a service technician should do to solve the problem?

	Use the testing functionality on the peripheral itself, if available. Verify that all cables are connected properly. Disconnect all cables connected to the computer except those connected to the peripheral.
	Disconnect all cables connected to the computer except those connected to the peripheral. Ensure that the peripheral is powered on. Disconnect the peripheral and verify that the computer is operating normally.
	Use the testing functionality on the peripheral itself, if available. Verify that all cables are connected properly. Ensure that the peripheral is powered on.
	Disconnect the peripheral and verify that the computer is operating normally. Reload the computer operating system. Disconnect all cables connected to the computer except those connected to the peripheral.
	Disconnect all cables connected to the computer except those connected to the peripheral. Use the testing functionality on the peripheral itself, if available. Reload the computer operating system.

18. Which two steps should be performed when installing a peripheral device?

	Download and install the most current driver. Connect the peripheral using any cable and any available port on the computer.
	Connect the peripheral using any cable and any available port on the computer. Test the peripheral on another machine before installing it on the one where it will be used.
	Test the peripheral on another machine before installing it on the one where it will be used. Download and install the most current driver.
	Download and install the most current driver. Connect the peripheral using an appropriate cable or wireless connection.
	Connect the peripheral using an appropriate cable or wireless connection. Check the computer documentation to see if the peripheral vendor is compatible with the PC vendor.

19. How is a server different from a workstation computer?

	The server works as a standalone computer.
	The server provides services to clients.
	The workstation has fewer applications installed.
	The workstation has more users who attach to it.

20. Administrators at a multicampus college need access to their schedules wherever the administrators go. Which computing device would be the most appropriate?

	PDA
	Laptop
	Desktop
	Mainframe
	Gaming Device

21. How many unique values are possible using a single binary digit?

	1
	2
	255
	256